The first few values of g(n) are 1, 27, 2875, 698005, 305093061, 210480374951, 210776836330775, 289139638632755625... -- so this sequence grows pretty quickly. How quickly? I couldn't tell at first, but it kept nagging at me every time I was in Charlie's office. The sequence is A027363 in the Encyclopedia of Integer Sequences. It turns out that it's in an appendix of the paper that the Encyclopedia links to (arXiv:math/0610286, specifically its appendix by Zagier) but the derivation there is long and involved and it was more fun with the formula myself. There are a few gaps, but here it is.
We can deal easily with the 1-z factor out front, and we want
We can already see it's going to be kind of tricky; the coefficients of fn(z) are probably going to be pretty big and not that far apart.
Now, we can pull out a 2n-1 from each factor in the expression for fn(z), and we get
Call the product pn(z). Now this is where, out of nowhere, I start having Fun With Probability. (It's kind of amusing because there is nothing probabilistic about the original question.) The term corresponding to j in that product is the probability generating function of a random variable which is 1 with probability (j/(2n-1)) and 0 otherwise. The product is thus the p.g.f. of the sum of such random variables for j = 0, 1, ..., 2n-1.
Now, this sum has mean which is the sum of the means of those random variables, that is,
Therefore [z^k] p_n(z) is approximately
which is the density of such a normal random variable. We want to know [zn] pn(z) - [zn] pn-1}(z), and this is approximately qn(n) - qn(n-1). You'd think this would be qn'(n), but qn(n) is actually zero -- the fact that the coefficients were "close to each other" is even more troublesome than you'd expect. Still, we can make a Taylor series for qn at n, and the linear term is zero, so we get
and now note that
Therefore
Besides, I'd never seen the trick of using the second derivative to approximate a difference before. At least not that I can remember.